Claiming Jews were not "white" in the US until the 20th century is false, as we have extensively documented:
https://trueleft.createaforum.com/true-left-vs-false-left/jews-have-nothing-in-common-with-us!/msg23429/?topicseen#msg23429European Jews have been legally classified as white since the first US census in 1790, were legally white for the purposes of the Naturalization Act of 1790 that limited citizenship to "free White person(s)", and that they could find no legislative or judicial evidence that American Jews had ever been considered collectively non-white.[88]
Next, there is no contradiction in Jim Crow-era US saying an American of Japanese ancestry is "non-white" due to being non-"Caucasian" and also saying an American of Indian ancestry is "non-white" despite being "Caucasian". It simply means "Caucasianness" is a necessary but insufficient condition for "whiteness". This guy does not appear to understand elementary logic.
Also, originally, "Asian" meant Anatolian, not "Chinese, Japanese or Korean", as we have pointed out over and over again:
https://trueleft.createaforum.com/colonial-era/russia-the-last-colonial-empire/msg12797/#msg12797In older British Empire documents, Chinese/Japanese/Koreans/etc. were labelled as "Orientals" whie "Asian" was reserved for Indians/Pakistanis/Bangladeshis/etc.:
In British English, the term Oriental is sometimes still used to refer to people from East and Southeast Asia (such as those from China, Taiwan, Japan, Korea, Mongolia, Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Singapore, Myanmar, Philippines, Indonesia, Timor-Leste and Brunei).[12] Judges in the United Kingdom have been issued with guidelines to encourage political correctness where oriental should be avoided because it is imprecise and may be considered racist or offensive.[13][14] Oriental is still a common name for Chinese takeaways and traditional chip shops in Britain.[15][16]
"Asian" in Great Britain usually refers to people who come specifically from South Asia (in particular Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Maldives, Bhutan, and Afghanistan), since British Asians as a whole make up approximately 9.3% of the population within the United Kingdom, and people of an ethnically South Asian background comprise the largest group within this category.[17] "Orientals" refers exclusively to people of East and Southeast Asian origin, who constitute approximately 0.7% of the UK population as a whole. Of these, the majority are of Chinese descent.[18] Orient is also a word for the lustre of a fine pearl.[19] Hong Kong, a former British colony, has been called "Pearl of the Orient" along with Shanghai. In the UK, and much of the commonwealth, it is not considered a pejorative term, with many East Asian people choosing to use it themselves - notably in the names of East Asian businesses such as restaurants and takeaway outlets.
This is still inaccurate, but at least somewhat less so by Roman standards:
This is particularly relevant when referring to lands and peoples not associated with the historic "Orient": outside of the former Byzantine (Eastern Roman) Empire and Sasanian Empire (Persia)
To claim that Chinese etc. were labelled"Asian" first and Indians etc. became "Asian" later is flat-out false. Even in the US, "Oriental" was in use for the former until relatively recently as a consequence of False Leftist pressure:
"With the U.S.A. anti-war movement in the '60s and early '70s, many Asian Americans identified the term 'Oriental' with a Western process of racializing Asians as forever opposite 'others'",[21] by making a distinction between "Western" and "Eastern" ancestral origins.
...
In 2016, President Obama signed New York Congresswoman Grace Meng's legislation H.R. 4238 replacing the word with Asian American in federal law.[22][23]
Also, the whole notion of associating "white" supremacism with capitalism is absurd. If it were true, why was the less capitalist Confederacy more strongly "white" supremacist than the more capitalist Union?