You have no clue what you are talking about. Moses was not a democrat:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_Moses
The "Law of Moses" in ancient Israel was different from other legal codes in the ancient Near East because transgressions were seen as offences against God rather than solely as offences against society (civil law).[6] This contrasts with the Sumerian Code of Ur-Nammu (c. 2100–2050 BCE), and the Babylonian Code of Hammurabi (c. 1760 BCE, of which almost half concerns contract law).
...
The law attributed to Moses, specifically the laws set out in the books of Leviticus and Deuteronomy, as a consequence came to be considered supreme over all other sources of authority (any king and/or his officials), and the Levites were the guardians and interpreters of the law.[12]
The Levites were not the majority of Israelites, nor could non-Levites by joining some of the Levites to form a majority of Israelites thus override the other Levites in the minority.
It is more accurate to compare Moses to Lycurgus:
calling him 'no chance person' (οὐχ ὁ τυχὼν ἀνήρ) but "the Lawgiver" (θεσμοθέτης, thesmothete) of the Jews, a term that puts him on a par with Lycurgus
(or for that matter Confucius:
https://trueleft.createaforum.com/issues/china-and-united-states-relations/msg12712/#msg12712 )
"Aristotle was a western paganist and Moses was a Jew"
Judaism is a form of paganism (ie. ethnic religion). It is more accurate to say that Aristotle was a polytheist whereas Moses was a monotheist.
Then, why Judaism, legacy of Moses, compatible with democracy? Moses ben Maimonides and modern political philosophers admit that Judaism were match with Aristotelian's theory of general will and democracy
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